1. RJ is a 63-year-old male with type 2 diabetes. Today he presents to the clinic with an elevated hemoglobin A1C (7.6%). When discussing RJ's personal treatment goals, he states he would like to lose some weight and avoid hypoglycemia. His past medical history is positive for hypertension, hypercholesterolemia, painful peripheral neuropathy, and a myocardial infarction 6 months ago. His current glucose-lowering regimen consists of metformin 1000 mg twice daily and pioglitazone 30 mg once daily. RJ inquires about starting a GLP-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA) because his friend was started on liraglutide about a year ago and has had good success.

2. The provider is considering a GLP-1 receptor agonist (RA) and is debating which agent might be most appropriate based on administration requirements, efficacy, and tolerability. Which of the following statements about GLP-1 RAs is most accurate?

3. BR does not want to start injectable therapy, so her provider recommends oral semaglutide. Which of the following administration instructions is appropriate to tell her about oral semaglutide?

4. In addition to liraglutide, which of the following GLP-1 receptor agonists has an expanded United States Food and Drug Administration (FDA) indication for reducing the risk of cardiovascular outcomes in people with type 2 diabetes?

5. Your patient was recently prescribed a GLP-1 receptor agonist (GLP-1 RA). While picking up his prescription, he asks how long he must use the medication until the cardiovascular (CV) risk protection is achieved. Which statement below is the most correct reply regarding onset of CV benefits with GLP-1 RAs?

Evaluation Questions

6. How confident are in your administration instructions for BR in the post-test?

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