1. Use the following patient CASE to answer questions 1 through 3:
JT is a 42-year-old male with newly diagnosed metastatic melanoma, which was identified after computed tomography (CT) of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis was performed in the emergency room shortly following a motor vehicle accident. The CT revealed multiple sub-centimeter lesions in the liver, a 1.2-cm nodule on the right adrenal gland, and 2 nodules in the lung (right upper lobe [RUL], 1.4 cm; right lower lobe [RLL], 1.5 cm). Biopsy from the RLL lung nodule confirmed metastatic melanoma. This tumor sample was sent for PD-L1 staining and mutation analysis for BRAF, NRAS, and c-KIT. JT completed his initial staging with magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of the brain, which was negative for intracranial disease.

Past medical history: JT has acid reflux, for which he takes famotidine 20 mg by mouth at bedtime as needed for heartburn.

Social history: JT works mostly from home as an accountant. He is married with no children, and he drinks 1 to 2 glasses of wine per week.

Laboratory testing: Complete blood count (CBC), creatinine, and liver function tests (LFTs) are all within normal limits (WNL). Lactate dehydrogenase (LDH) is elevated at 402 U/L.

JT presents to the medical oncology clinic today for treatment planning. His Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status is 0, and he is eager to get started on the most effective therapy. 

Which of the following regimens would you recommend as first-line therapy for JT?

2. JT returns to clinic for a toxicity check prior to his 4th cycle of ipilimumab 3 mg/kg + nivolumab 1 mg/kg. According to his physical exam and subjective assessment, he has tolerated therapy well to date and has not had any delays in treatment. All his lab findings are WNL with the exception of alanine transaminase (ALT), which is 131 U/L (approximately 3x the upper limit of normal [ULN]) and aspartate transaminase (AST), which is 140 U/L (approximately 3.5x ULN).

What is your recommendation to the physician?

3. JT returns in 1 week for his lab recheck, and his ALT is 313 U/L (7.5x ULN), AST is 164 U/L (~4x ULN), and total bilirubin is still WNL. He is started on oral prednisone 1 mg/kg/day and pantoprazole 40 mg orally daily, and he is advised to return every other day for repeat LFTs.

Over the course of the week, his labs show sustained improvement and the attending physician would like you to create a prednisone taper for JT. How should this be done?

4. Use the following patient CASE to answer questions 4 through 8:
AM is a 25-year-old female with newly diagnosed Stage IIIB malignant melanoma. She has undergone wide local excision of the primary melanoma on her right scapula and had a sentinel lymph node biopsy that was positive. She does not have any clinically detectable lymph nodes, and, due to her lifestyle, she chooses not to do complete lymph node dissection, opting instead for lymph node basin surveillance with ultrasound. She meets with the medical oncology team to discuss systemic adjuvant therapy options. BRAF testing on her tumor sample revealed a V600E mutation.

Past medical history: AM had an appendectomy at age 17.

Social history: AM is a professional beach volleyball player. She is single and reports no alcohol use.

Laboratory testing: Complete blood count (CBC), creatinine, and liver function tests (LFTs) are all within normal limits (WNL).

Which of the following adjuvant systemic therapies would be appropriate for AM?

5. You have been asked by the physician and nurse to review pembrolizumab patient education with AM. Which of the following tools and teaching points would you utilize and discuss with her?

6. AM has completed 7 cycles of her adjuvant pembrolizumab and is tolerating therapy well. Her surveillance ultrasounds and restaging scans to date have all indicated no evidence of recurrence. She has been more fatigued than normal the last few weeks but has been able to push through and maintain her usual active lifestyle. She does express feeling depressed and frustrated about this and acknowledges that it is likely related to her treatment, but she does not want to stop pembrolizumab therapy. Her thyroid panel labs reveal a thyroid-stimulating hormone (TSH) level of 26 mU/mL (above the upper limit of normal) and a free T4 level of 0.93 ng/dL (lower limit of normal).

How should you proceed with AM?

7. AM goes on to complete 1 year of adjuvant therapy and proceeds with scheduled restaging scans. She is feeling great and remains active, but 3 months later, magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) of her brain reveals 3 new lesions (smallest, 0.5 cm; largest, 0.8 cm) and computed tomography (CT) of the chest, abdomen, and pelvis reveals new lesions in her liver, as well. She does not have any neurologic symptoms. After conducting online research, she has become worried about the long-term effects of whole brain radiation.

Given her multifocal metastatic disease, which of the following would be the best treatment option for AM?

8. AM goes on to receive all 4 cycles of ipilimumab + nivolumab and is looking forward to moving on to the maintenance phase of nivolumab 480 mg IV every 4 weeks. Five days after she receives her nivolumab dose, AM begins having 5 to 6 episodes of diarrhea per day and comes in to the emergency room for management. She is started on IV fluids, a CT of the abdomen/pelvis is obtained, and a stool sample is sent off for infectious evaluation. After speaking with the on-call medical oncologist, AM is started on IV methylprednisolone 1 mg/kg/day. The dose is increased to 2 mg/kg after 2 days of no improvement in symptoms and CT results showing diffuse edema in the colon and inflammation consistent with colitis. Two days later, her diarrhea has improved to 4 episodes per day, but the volume has not changed.

What adjunctive therapy should be added for AM’s colitis?

9. Use the following patient case to answer questions 9 and 10:
EF is a 92-year-old male with BRAF-wild-type metastatic melanoma involving the lung; he was initiated on pembrolizumab 200 mg IV every 3 weeks as first-line therapy. He now returns to the clinic for a toxicity check prior to cycle 3 of pembrolizumab. He is still walking his dog around the neighborhood every morning, and his only new complaint after starting this treatment is some mild joint pain for a few days after the infusions.

Which of the following should be evaluated as part of routine order preparation and assessment for continuation of EF’s therapy?

10. After receiving an additional 4 cycles of pembrolizumab, EF has started experiencing more headaches and generalized fatigue, which has begun to limit his daily activities. He notifies his oncologist, who orders several adrenal labs to evaluate for hypophysitis. The laboratory results are consistent with adrenal insufficiency, and he is started on physiologic doses of oral hydrocortisone 20 mg in the morning and 10 mg in the afternoon/early evening, as well as levothyroxine replacement for central hypothyroidism.

EF asks how long he needs to take these new medications. How would you answer his question?

Evaluation Questions

11. How confident are in your treatment choices for JT in the post-test?

12. How confident are in your treatment choices for AM in the post-test?

13. How confident are in your treatment choices for EF in the post-test?

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