1.

Use the following CASE to answer questions 1 through 3:

HP is a 72-year-old African American male with a history of chronic pancreatitis due to alcohol intake. He is also a smoker. After he complained of severe back pain and upper abdominal pain, he underwent a computed tomography (CT) scan, which found a 2-cm mass in the head of the pancreas. Endoscopic ultrasonography (EUS) and magnetic resonance imaging (MRI) have been completed and HP’s tumor has been determined to be resectable. An endoscopic retrograde cholangiopancreatography (ERCP) procedure confirmed the histology as pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. 

Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pancreatic cancer?

2. Prior to surgery, should HP undergo neoadjuvant therapy?

3. HP undergoes successful surgical resection with an R0 status. Post-surgery, he is being prepped for adjuvant therapy. His Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status is 0 and his organ function is all within normal limits. He is feeling better than he ever has. Which of the following therapies would be considered the best option for this patient for adjuvant therapy?

4. Use the following CASE to answer questions 4 through 6: 

RW is a 71-year-old Caucasian male with newly diagnosed pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. Work-up has found metastases to the liver, peritoneum, and lungs. His tumor is BRCA1/2 positive, mismatch-repair deficient/microsatellite instability-high (dMMR/MSI-H) negative, and neurotrophic receptor tyrosine kinase (NTRK) negative. His Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status is 1. 

Based on the information provided, what is the recommended front-line therapy for RW?

5. After 16 weeks of therapy, RW has achieved a partial response. According to the POLO trial, which agent should RW receive as maintenance therapy?

6. After 6 months on maintenance therapy, RW relapses. His performance status remains an ECOG level 1. What is the best option for RW as second-line therapy?

7. Use the following CASE to answer questions 7 through 10: 

HG is a 70-year-old Caucasian female with newly diagnosed ductal pancreatic adenocarcinoma that has metastasized to the lungs. From a tissue biopsy, this tumor is determined to be mismatch-repair deficient/microsatellite instability-high (dMMR/MSI-H) positive, BRCA1/2 negative, and neurotrophic receptor tyrosine kinase (NTRK) negative. Her Eastern Cooperative Oncology Group (ECOG) performance status is 2.

According to the information presented, what is most appropriate as first-line therapy for HG?

8. The oncology fellow was interested to know why erlotinib was not added, since many pancreatic tumors are endothelial growth factor receptor (EGFR) positive. What is the best response to this question?

9. Six months later, HG relapses. Her ECOG status has maintained at 2. What would be a reasonable second-line therapy?

10. Second-line therapy provided relief from most of HG's symptoms, and she achieved a partial response. However, 3 months later, HG relapses again. Her ECOG status is now 3. What is the best option for HG at this time?

Evaluation Questions

11. How confident are in your treatment choice for HP in the previous questions:

12. How confident are in your treatment choice for RW in the previous questions:

13. How confident are in your treatment choice for HG in the previous questions:

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