1. Patient blood management (PBM) can be best described as:
A. Selecting the best blood transfusion products for the individual, including use of autologous blood transfusion when possible to minimize strain on blood supplies
B. Avoiding infection and complications associated with blood transfusions including HIV, hepatitis, and cytomegalovirus
C. A program to optimize the use of blood products by maintaining hemoglobin levels, minimizing blood loss, and preventing or treating anemia
D. Ensuring that patients do not have anemia prior to undergoing surgical procedures
2. Which of the following issues is part of a philosophical shift on use of blood products described in the article?
A. Donated blood is safer than ever due to precautions taken with blood donations, so patients should not be concerned about the risks of blood transfusions.
B. Artificial blood substitutes should be used whenever possible because of the shortage of human blood.
C. Blood products should be handled by hematologists and other medical professionals with specialized training in this area.
D. Because blood products are costly and in short supply, human blood should be viewed as more of a tissue transplant than an additional fluid.
3. Potential complications associated with blood transfusions include all of the following except :
A. Hemochromatosis
B. infection risk
C. risk of anaphylaxis
D. long-term risks of destabilized stored blood
4. Which of the following statements is accurate regarding anemia and its prevalence in the population?
A. Anemia is defined as hemoglobin ≤ 13 g/dL in adults (either male or female)
B. Anemia occurs in about 10% to 15% of adults over age 65
C. Anemia is present in about 40% to 60% of adults with chronic diseases
D. Anemia prevalence peaks among adults in their mid 60s and then drops off among older adults (70s and 80s)
5. Prevention and treatment of anemia in the preoperative stages is important because of evidence of heightened mortality risk in:
A. Any patient with anemia who undergoes surgery
B. Patients with moderate to severe anemia, but not mild anemia
C. Mainly patients undergoing cardiac surgeries
D. Patients undergoing surgery in outpatient surgical facilities, but not tertiary hospitals
6. Per the recommendations of the Society for the Advancement for Blood Management (SABM), which of the following are considered first-tier laboratory tests to detect iron deficiency in patients prior to surgery?
A. transferrin saturation and serum ferritin
B. C-reactive protein (CRP) and soluble transferrin receptor
C. standard CBC and CRP
D. all of the above
7. Which of the following is not an available form of IV iron?
A. ferric gluconate
B. ferric carboxymaltose
C. ferumoxytol
D. ferrous fumarate
8. The preferred approach for management of perioperative iron is:
A. oral iron, due to lower invasiveness and better tolerability relative to IV iron
B. IV iron, due to faster onset of action and better efficacy in patients with inflammation
C. allogeneic blood transfusion, which may be indicated during the surgical procedure
D. autologous blood transfusion using the patient's own blood
9. Which of the following describes the mechanism of erythropoietin-stimulating agents (ESAs) in blood management?
A. ESAs stimulate the bone marrow to produce red blood cells at a supraphysiologic rate
B. ESAs induce production of red blood cells but in doing so can create functional iron deficiency
C. ESAs can be given in combination with IV iron to optimize RBC production without inducing anemia
D. all of the above
10. Hospital pharmacists may be called upon to manage the distribution of topical hemostatic agents, used in surgery to enhance coagulation at the site of bleeding. In comparison to mechanical barrier agents, biologically active hemostatic agents:
A. are lower cost and easier to use
B. require an intact coagulation system
C. require intact fibrinogen but not an intact clotting system
D. are made with polysaccharide spheres
Evaluation Questions
11. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
12. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
13. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
14. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
15. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
16. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
17. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
18. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
19. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
20. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
21. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
23. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
24. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No
25. What is your practice setting or area of practice?
A. Community Pharmacy/Independent
B. Community Pharmacy/Chain
C. Hospital/Health Systems
D. Administrative/Pharmacy Director
E. Critical Care Pharmacy
F. Long-term Care
G. Managed Care/PBM
H. Oncology
I. Specialty Pharmacy
J. Industry/Manufacturing
26. How many years have you been in practice?
A. <5
B. 5 – 10
C. 11 – 20
D. >20