1. Multiple Sclerosis (MS) symptoms include which of the following:
A. Bladder dysfunction
B. Bowel dysfunction
C. Limb weakness
D. All of the above
2. Choose the TRUE statement from the following:
A. MS occurs more frequently in women than in men
B. MS occurs more frequently in men than in women
C. The occurrence of MS is equally distributed between men and women
D. All of the above
3. Which of the following MS subtypes is most prevalent:
A. Relapsing and remitting (RRMS)
B. Secondary progressive (SPMS)
C. Primary progressive (PPMS)
D. Progressive relapsing (PRMS)
4. Which of the following is a treatment goal for MS:
A. Repair the nerve damage from MS plaques
B. Prevent lesion progression
C. Regenerate the myelin sheath, so neurological function is restored
D. Cure MS with disease-modifying drugs
5. Which of the following are important counseling points to provide to a patient newly initiated on interferon treatment:
A. This medication can temporarily cause flu-like symptoms
B. You can self-treat flu-like symptoms with acetaminophen or an NSAID
C. The injection site should not be rotated
D. Both answers A. and B. are correct
6. Which of the following is an appropriate baseline monitoring parameter that should be done prior to initiating interferon beta-1a:
A. Liver function test
B. Electrocardiogram monitoring
C. Kidney function test
D. Pulmonary function test
7. Which of the following is TRUE regarding natalizumab therapy:
A. Natalizumab does not cause infusion-related reactions
B. Patients, physicians, and infusion centers must be enrolled in the TOUCH program
C. Patients do not need to be screened for anti-JCV prior to initiation of natalizumab therapy.
D. It is first-line therapy for RRMS
8. Which of the following are important counseling points for fingolimod:
A. This drug should be taken orally once every week
B. This drug is associated with nausea and vomiting, particularly during the first 2 weeks of treatment
C. The first dose should be administered in the physician's office and the patient should be monitored for 6 hours afterward
D. This drug should be administered subcutaneously once daily
9. Which of the following describes the role of the pharmacist in the management of patents with MS:
A. Educate patients and families regarding patient assistance programs
B. Encourage patients to maintain compliance
C. Adverse drug reaction management
D. All of the above
10. Which of the following statements is TRUE regarding MS:
A. Vitamin A may have a role in development of MS
B. Clinical presentation can include visual disturbance and muscle weakness
C. It is more common in men than in women
D. PPMS is the most common type of MS
11. Which of the following statements regarding mitoxantrone and natalizumab is TRUE:
A. Natalizumab is associated with a risk of developing PML
B. Mitoxantrone is associated with a risk of developing PML
C. Mitoxantrone is only indicated for RRMS
D. Natalizumab is only indicated for RRMS
12. Which of the following statements regarding fingolimod is TRUE:
A. Fingolimod is the first oral disease modifying drug (DMD) approved by the U.S. Food and Drug Administration (FDA) for RRMS
B. Electrocardiogram testing should be performed prior to dosing
C. Fingolimod works by decreasing the migration of lymphocytes into the central nervous system (CNS), which may play a role in modifying the disease
D. All of the above
13. Which of the following statements regarding dalfampridine is TRUE:
A. In the dalfampridine group, walking speed was faster in feet per second over a 75-foot measured space compared with the placebo group
B. Dalfampridine carries a warning regarding the risk of bradycardia for those with MS
C. Dalfampridine is a subcutaneously administered potassium channel blocker used to improve walking speed for those with MS
D. Dalfampridine is an orally administered potassium channel blocker used to improve walking speed for those with MS
14. Which of the following therapies are currently being evaluated for the treatment of MS:
A. Dalfampridine
B. Doxorubicin
C. Alemtuzumab
D. Ibritumomab
15. MS is diagnosed according to which of the following:
A. Magnetic resonance imaging (MRI), brain surgery, and patient history
B. MRI, cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) analysis and brain surgery
C. MRI, CSF analysis, and patient history
D. Brain surgery, CSF analysis, and patient history
16. Which of the following is TRUE regarding glatiramer acetate:
A. It is an oral medication administered daily
B. It is a subcutaneous medication administered daily
C. It is considered a second line therapy for MS
D. In clinical studies, it was found to cure MS in the majority of patients studied
17. Which of the following is TRUE regarding teriflunomide:
A. Women of childbearing age should have a negative pregnancy test prior to the initiation of this medication
B. It is the first oral agent to be approved by the FDA
C. It was shown to decrease liver enzyme levels in clinical studies
D. It increases the ability of antigen presenting cells to activate T-cells
18. Which of the following are chimeric antibodies currently being evaluated for MS treatment:
A. Ocrelizumab and dimethyl fumarate
B. Rituximab and ocrelizumab
C. Rituximab and dimethyl fumarate
D. Alemtuzumab and ocrelizumab
19. Which of following has a positive impact upon caregiver burden for the MS patient:
A. MS patients receiving care from health care professionals who specialize in MS
B. MS patients enrolled in clinical studies
C. Declining cognitive impairment
D. Depressive symptoms of MS
20. Which of the following individuals has the highest risk for developing MS:
A. HJ, an African-American woman, 23 years of age
B. BT, an Africa-American man, 23 years of age
C. KO, an Asian woman, 23 years of age
D. MN, a Caucasian woman, 23 years of age
Evaluation Questions
21. To what extent did the program meet objective #1?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
22. To what extent did the program meet objective #2?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
23. To what extent did the program meet objective #3?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
24. To what extent did the program meet objective #4?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
25. To what extent did the program meet objective #5?
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
26. Rate the effectiveness of how well the program related to your educational needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
27. Rate how well the active learning strategies (questions, cases, discussions) were appropriate and effective learning tools:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
28. Rate the quality of the faculty:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
29. Rate the effectiveness and the overall usefulness of the material presented:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
30. Rate the appropriateness of the examination for this activity:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
31. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity related to your practice needs:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
32. Rate the effectiveness of how well the activity will help you improve patient care:
A. Excellent
B. Very Good
C. Good
D. Fair
E. Poor
33. Will the information presented cause you to change your practice?
A. Yes
B. No
34. Are you committed to making these changes?
A. Yes
B. No
35. As a result of this activity, did you learn something new?
A. Yes
B. No
36. What is your practice setting or area of practice?
A. Community Pharmacy/Independent
B. Community Pharmacy/Chain
C. Hospital/Health Systems
D. Long-term Care
E. Managed Care/PBM
F. Oncology/Specialty Pharmacy
G. Research
H. Regulatory/Government
I. Industry/Manufacturing
37. How many years have you been in practice?
A. <5
B. 5 – 10
C. 11 – 20
D. >20